From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 51905
Date: 2008-01-27
> So PIE must have been a real spoken language then.What else could it be? With the obvious reservation: _reconstructed_ PIE
> I have two diffrent responses for this:I suspect you've got the numbers wrong. I can't see any analogy between
>
> 1. Buying into your argument that PIE must have existed "Just as there
> was a language called Latin."
>
> sorry for the long link
>
> <http://www.arch.cam.ac.uk/~pah1003/loe/Eng/Papers/06_12_07_DataShow_PaulHeggarty_TreesOrWebsSplitsOrWaves.pdf>
>
> Slide 31: The heartland where we know Latin was spoken or written i.e.
> Italy or France historically are the "homeland."
>
> and slide 53: where "Indo-Iranian" occupies that position hence India
> is the homeland of this single language.
> 2. Not buying into your argument that PIE must have existed "Just as[Sigh] It only means that the (Romance + Germanic) and (Romance +
> there was a language called Latin." Refer to slide 50 the green line
> on top of the Romance languages has a 100% posteror probablilty but
> the higher node immediately prceeding that has only 46% and 2 nodes
> before that only 44%.
>
> I am going with position 2!