Re: Brugmann's Law

I consider Slavic originates in the right-side bank of Middle Volga,

around Oka for example,

It's better than Baltic anyway.

Uralic words may in fact come from at least two PIE words.

Slavic is one, Indian manusha is the other

I am still interested to know

what Slavic mondzha stems from

(with a detailed chain of changes please)

Arnaud

----- Original Message -----

From: Rick McCallister

To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com

Sent: Wednesday, January 16, 2008 4:45 AM

Subject: Re: [tied] Brugmann's Law

It would seem that Slavic was too far west to have
influenced Uralic. Indo-Iranian and Tokharian would
have been in the neighborhood.
Who knows if other IE languages were swamped by the
spread of Iranian over the steppe.
I've seen somewhere reference to an IE substrate in
Slavic but I forget where and I don't have the
knowledge to know if it's legit or a crackpot idea

--- "fournet.arnaud" <fournet.arnaud@ wanadoo.fr>
wrote:

>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Mate Kapoviæ" <mkapovic@... hr>
> To: <cybalist@... s.com>
> Sent: Tuesday, January 15, 2008 8:53 PM
> Subject: Re: [tied] Brugmann's Law
>
>
> >> =========
> >> What is the vowel in Pok 700 manu / monu "man" ?
> >>
> > Vedic mánu¹ can be *menus, since *monus would
> yield **ma:nu¹. Although
> > both Gothic manna and Slavic moN¾I point to *mon-
> (or *man-).
> > Mate
> ===========
> What is the chain of pre-forms from *mon to Slavic
> *moN¾I ?
> Slavic is much closer to Uralic *mandz(h) than
> anything else.
>
> Arnaud
> ============ ====
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