From: tgpedersen
Message: 51152
Date: 2008-01-10
>No. The Slavs derive from those IE-speakers who survived Attila's
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "tgpedersen" <tgpedersen@> wrote:
> >
> >
> > > Partitive genitive in Russian may be due to a relatively late
> > > influence from the Baltic Finnish substrate.
> >
> > I thought the use of partitive genitive in negative existential
> > sentences was pan-Slavic, not just Russian?
>
> Looks like. I have to revise the statement so that it pertains
> specifically to North Russian dialects.
>
> > And why the correspondence
> > Slavic genitive < ablative *-od <-> Fennic separative *-tV?
>
> Frankly, I fail to see anything but a chance resemblance unless we
> look upon it from a Nostratic perspective. Obviously, PIE *-od
> ablative became Proto-Slavic genitive long before linguistic
> contacts between Slavs and Fenni.
> Do you have ideas about why it (abl. > gen.) happened?For a native Fennic speaker it was a natural thing to substitute his
> > > Note that the NorthEstonian 'sajab lund' "it rains" (lume "snow" in the partitive)
> > > Russian dialects (Slavo-Finnish contact area) make use of
> > > partitive genitive also in positive contexts which finds exact
> > > correspondence in Baltic Finnish (particularly in Suomi, see I.
> > > Vahros' Venäjän genetiivi ja suomen partitiivi eritoten objektin
> > > ja subjektin kaasuksina. Juhlakirja L. Hakulisen
> > > 60-vuotispäiväksi. Helsinki, 1959. Pp. 283ff).
> > >
> > > Conclusion so far: the partitive genitive is hardly a result of
> > > hypothetical European IE Uralic contacts in the proto-epoch
> > > but rather either a typological feature attested in various IE
> > > (Germanic, Romance) and non-IE (Finnish, Basque) languages or a
> > > vestige of relatively recent contacts (North Russian < Finnish).
> >
> > So if it's both in positive and negative contexts it's substrate
> > influence but if it's only in negative contexts it's just
> > typology? I don't think so.
>
> Yes, you're right. It needs to be re-formulated more accurately too.
>
> North Russian examples in T. Dol's "Syntaksic^eskije osobennosti
> govora Zaonez^ja" [Lingvistic^eskij sbornik, 1. Petrozavodsk, 1962,
> p. 64]: _bylo by doz^dic^ka bylo by i gribkof_; _komarof
> naletelo_; _utic plavajet_ et sim. Since constructions like these
> are specific for this dialectal zone and non-standard in Common
> Rusian but quite standard in Finnish which as we know has been
> spoken here before Russian, it seems natural to consider them a
> substrate influence.
> It seems far more complicated with "negative context only"Dutch is similar in some partitive aspects. I'll buy a typological
> partitive. Its usage covers Fennic, Slavic, Baltic (see below) and
> East Germanic (do I miss some else?) This constitutes a geographic
> continuity. An explanation by diffusion may be sought and found. But
> Mate mentioned seemingly unrelated examples much more to the west.
> Typology, nevertheless?
> And if we decide for a (proto-)FennicFennic substrate?
> (Uralic, whatever) influence on Balto-Slavic, how do we explain
> Gothic facts?
> > What's the use in negative existential sentences in Baltic?Ah, good that you reminded me: another hint of Fennic substrate of
>
> In Latvian, it's grammatical genitive too, e.g. _man ir draugs
> (nom.)_ "I have a friend" (lit. "to me [there] is a
> friend") and _man nav draugu (part.-gen.)_ "I have no friends".
> > The other thing to consider is how close East Germanic was toCheck out:
> > Slavic and Fennic during its genesis?
>
> During the genesis of East Germanic? I don't think it was
> particularly close to Slavic for it didn't border Slavic. But some
> syntactic traits shared with Slavic might have been acquired by
> Gothic later in East Europe, as a consequence of the Gotho-Slavic
> intercourse.