From: Mate Kapović
Message: 50423
Date: 2007-10-23
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Mate Kapović <mkapovic@...> wrote:Yes, with every morpheme in PIE being (+) or (-), (+) most likely being
>>
>> On Ned, listopad 21, 2007 12:43 pm, alexandru_mg3 reče:
>> >
>> > I want to ask you what is the real context of Dybo's law?
>> >
>> > The rule can be formulated:
>> >
>> > For Italic, Celtic and Germanic:
>> >
>> > V:/RVaccented > V
>> >
>> > or
>> >
>> > VH /RVaccented > V
>> >
>> > V - vowel ; R - Resonant {m,n,l,r,w,y} H-laryngeal
>> >
>> > but
>> > Latin fu:mus < *dHuh2-mó- is still with u:
>> > Latin pu:rus < *puh2-ró- is still with u:
>> >
>> > and seems that there are also samples of short vowels from long
> vowels
>> > follows by a non-resonant
>>
>> Just a side-note, Dybo actually does not operate with shortening in
>> pretonic syllables since he believes in the PIE tones, not in PIE
>> Vedic-type free stress. Thus, what he claims is that *u: and *i:
> (i.e. *uH
>> and *iH) are shortened in Italic, Celtic and Germanic in the roots
> which
>> are (-) in Balto-Slavic (i.e. mobile accentual paradigm).
>>
>> Mate
>>
>
>
> Thanks, Mate.
>
> Honestly I'm more confused now, than I previously was (of course, not
> due to you, but due to what you tell me about Dybo)
>
> If I understood correctly, you tell me that Dybo sustains that PIE
> was a tone language?
> If so, what are his arguments?In Balto-Slavic, the system of (+) and (-) was supposedly directly