--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "michelmrvn" <michelmrvn@...> wrote:
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "tgpedersen" <tgpedersen@> wrote:
> >
> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "michelmrvn" <michelmrvn@...>
> > wrote:
> > >
> > > It's the recent theory of Stephen Oppenheimer (The Origins of
> > > the British). He thinks that Celtic people did not arrive from
> > > eastern Europe through Germany but from the south-east of
> > > Europe.
> >
> > South-west, right?
>
> No, south-east, if I understand correctly Oppenheimer.
Michel is right. Check out Oppenheimer's article at
http://www.prospect-magazine.co.uk/article_details.php?id=7817
"Given the distribution of Celtic languages in southwest Europe, it
is most likely that they were spread by a wave of agriculturalists
who dispersed 7,000 years ago from Anatolia, travelling along the
north coast of the Mediterranean to Italy, France, Spain and then up
the Atlantic coast to the British Isles. There is a dated
archaeological trail for this. My genetic analysis shows exact
counterparts for this trail both in the male Y chromosome and the
maternally transmitted mitochondrial DNA right up to Cornwall, Wales,
Ireland and the English south coast."
A trail from Anatolia to Italy, France and Spain implies that
Oppenheimer's hypothetical (pre-)Proto-Celtic agriculturists would
have passed through the south-east of Europe (= the Balkans) as
Michel pointed out.
Best,
Francesco