>Isn't the latter supposed to be a loan (ultimately derivable from a
> On 2007-09-17 21:27, raonath wrote:
> > Also, what is the current view on -k'u- > Greek -pp-? According to
> > Sihler, the horse word is the only secure example. Any
> > phonological reasons for this difference?
> Preservation of the original segment count/syllable structure? I
> know no independent examples of -kk-/-pp- in Greek, but -kk- for
> *-k(^)w- can be supported with lákkos 'pond' < *lakw-o- and pélekkos
> 'axe-shaft', pelekkáo: 'cut with an axe', both reflecting
> *pelek(^)w-, cf. pélekus 'axe' < pre-Gk. *pelek^u- (Skt. paras'u-).