[tied] Re: *-tro-/*-tlo-

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Jens Elmegård Rasmussen <elme@...> wrote:

>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "stlatos" <stlatos@> wrote:
> >
> >
> > --- Jens Elmegård Rasmussen <elme@> wrote:
> >
> > > Do we have a pre-BSl. rule changing th to dh after
> > > sonant (or just
> > > liquid)? We find Slavic tvIrdU 'hard, compact'
> > > (Lith. restored
> > > tvìrtas), *vold- from *wolHt- (Lith valdy'ti, OCS
> > > vladoN 'dominate'),
> >
> > But Germanic *wald- isn't a causative
> I didn't say it was. It may be an intensive.
>
> > Why would this *wolHt- end in Ht? Is it an
> > extension? If so, why not one in dh? Why no *H1r,H1t- > *H1r,th-
> for
> > 'row'?
>
> I'd assume /t/ from the 3sg, but I admit I overlooked this point
> which makes the example very weak. It demands no explanation that
> this did not happen in most cases.

Are you saying that PIE had a root *H1r,H1- 'row' but *H1r,H1ti
'rows' was reanalyzed? That seems very unlikely; wouldn't it be
*H1reH1ti or *H1reH1yei?

> > Why would *tl,xtos > tìltas have ana. d>t?
>
> I agree it wouldn't. Perhaps BSl. /d/ is only from H1t.

Then why would H1t > tH and H2 > tH be from PIE? I don't think this
involves PIE at all.

> > However, -idus is not from *-e-h1- + -to-. There are cognates in
> > other languages (where there's no tH>d).

> > *xalbh-xY-dó+ 'being white' >
> > Lat albidus 'white', PGer *albitaz > ON elptr, OHG albiz 'swan'

> This looks like a fine and unexpected example of *th > Germanic /t/
> as assumed by Stang and Dal. The common derivation would indeed be
> *H2albhe-H1-to- > *H2albhetho-.

If Ht>th comes after eH>H+syl, as you said before, why any forms in
*-etho- at all?

What about *a-xto- 'having _, possessed of _'? What analogy would
restore H2 or whatever if H2t > th?