Re: [tied] Re: On the ordering of some PIE rules

He noted that the -t doesn't spirantize.
Could this be do to the same reason that Germanic
stops didn't (initally) spirantize after s-? (Of
course, sk- became S and sx later on in English and
Dutch).


--- "Brian M. Scott" <BMScott@...> wrote:

> At 7:39:02 AM on Wednesday, May 30, 2007, tgpedersen
> wrote:
>
> > Germanic spirantizes stops before stops: haft-s
> > Sabellic does too: scriftas, screihtas
> > Old Irish does too: recht
> > Iranian does too: bust,
> > and it does more: fs^umans, fDroi
>
> > Latin doesn't: scriptum
> > Sanskrit doesn't: buddh-
>
> > Germanic is irregular here: it should be -fT-, not
> -ft-.
> > Why?
>
> What's irregular about it?
>
> Brian
>
>
>

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