From: Rick McCallister
Message: 48521
Date: 2007-05-10
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "altamix"____________________________________________________________________________________
> <alxmoeller@...> wrote:
> >
> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Richard
> Wordingham" <richard@>
> > wrote:
> > >
> > > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "alexandru_mg3"
> <alexandru_mg3@>
> > > wrote:
> > >
> > > > 2. How old is the p-Celtic / q-Celtic
> difference ? Or the
> > > > similar Italic situation? You indicated a
> Dialectal-PIE
> timeframe
> > > > So only Romanian would remain a unique 'modern
> case'..in this
> > > > model?
> > >
> > > No, Sardinian has a similar change.
> > >
> > > Richard.
> >
> >
> >
> > Do you intend to say that celtic change of kW > p
> and the italic
> > change of kW>p has the same reasons and the
> people, facts, events,
> > have been related, eventually of the same stock or
> they have been
> > influenced by the same factors?
> >
> > Alex
> >
>
> Yes, I suspect so : the p/q-Dialects represent a
> continous alternance
> from Atlantic, Italic Peninsula till Balkans etc...
>
> The presence of PIE aKWa together with apa is
> another hint for such
> an old alternance kW/p...
>
> What is strange is that this alternance appears
> 'inside' the
> dialects of the same languages, but is spread on a
> huge European
> areal.
>
> Another alternance like this (but that seems more
> limited) is the a/u
> one.
>
> Marius
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