--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski
<gpiotr@...> wrote:
>
> On 2007-05-04 02:21, stlatos wrote:
>
> > Which words do you think come from *sup-nó- not
*swép-no-?
>
>
>
> > Greek doesn't have the correct accent,
>
> That's why I'd admit your explanation for Greek. On
the other hand, the
> accent of the noun may well be contrastive (adj.
supnó- --> n. súpno-).
> The zero grade is also visible in Albanian and
possibly Tocharian (see
> below).
How can you possibly be sure? The history of Alb
isn't clear enough for you to see u in a certain
environment that rounds o>u in a closely related
language and be sure it shows PIE *u. If o>u between
certain rounded sounds in Alb (the point I was trying
to prove by examples such as Greek) it could have wu>u
as well. Doesn't gjum require accent on the first
syllable also? There doesn't seem to be any evidence
for accented *supnós at all.
> > Arm k'un seems to need
> > sw-, if Baltic is different from Slavic that seems
like a late
> > date for analogy.
>
> Not if both words coexisted, perhaps originally with
different shades of
> meaning (e.g. 'sleep' vs. 'dream, trance') which
later merged as one of
> the forms was lost. Cf. Tocharian, where we have
*s.w'&p(&)ne (TB s.pane
> 'sleep') < *swepno- vs. *s&mne (in the TB derivative
sänmetstse
> 'entranced') < *supno-.
The Toch forms just seem to show metathesis (*swep >
*s.op > *s.pa just like *septm, > s.pät (and/or cont-
amination w 'six'?)) in one word but not in another
(*swepnyo+m > *swopniyo+to+ >> *sopniyto > *samnitya).
If you are advocating:
swepnos
sw&pnos
sw&p&nos
swp&nos
sp&nos
etc.
I'd like to know why 0>& / p_n occurs in one word and
not another (or whatever additional rules you
propose).
á é í ó ú à è ò ì ù È Ó
æ ø å ä ë ï ö ü ő ű
þ ð ç
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