From: stlatos
Message: 48427
Date: 2007-05-03
>Why should there be any original connection between *tauros and
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "etherman23" <etherman23@> wrote:
> > If the PIE root is *(s)taur then we have an apparent violation of
> root
> > constraints. PIE didn't have any roots with a diphthong followed by a
> > resonant. That suggests a borrowing. If we analyze the root as *(s)
> tau
> > instead then the comparison breaks down because of the *r in the
> > Semitic form.
>
> I have a second thought: It now looks to me more like a case of
> borrowing back and forth. We may begin with IE *stéwH-ro-/*stuH-ró-,
> whence German Stier and OIc. thjórr. That appears to have been
> integrated into Semitic as *Tawr- (nom. *Tawr-u), which may in turn
> have been borrowed back into IE yielding Lat. taurus, Gk. taûros,
> Lith. tau~ras (Celtic *tarwos by adjustment to *karwos 'stag'). I
> think that accomodates just about everything.