From: tgpedersen
Message: 48126
Date: 2007-03-30
>Is that the only possible analysis?
>
> > That opens a possibility to solve the old
> > puzzle of why the 2sg pres. ind. of *h1es- "be" has only one -s-
> > (Skt ási, Av. ahi, Gk. ei~)...
>
> It is a puzzle? The morphological cluster *-s-s- seems to have been
> simpilified in PIE and IIr., not only in *h1es-si > *h1esi but also
> elsewhere, cf. e.g. the loc.pl. of -es stems, Skt. -as- + -su -->
> -asu.
> The analogical restoration of the *s in the 2sg. form wouldTo create a fuller, more verb-like stem? Whatever the reason, some
> have been understandable (and certainly happened here and there),
> but why should *h1e-si have been resegmented as *h1es-i?