From: Mate Kapović
Message: 47864
Date: 2007-03-15
> "The fact that deaspiration in Greek took place after the change ofBecause you're an ignorant. Please, would you be so kind to learn the
> Proto-Indo-European *bʰ, dʰ, gʰ to /pʰ, tʰ,
> kʰ/, and the fact that no
> other Indo-European languages have Grassmann's law, show that
> Grassmann's law developed independently in Greek and Sanskrit; it was
> not inherited from PIE."
>
> Why independently? I would just put Greek and Sanskrit in one family.
> "http://ablauttime.blogspot.com/2004/10/those-old-ie-sound-laws.htmlYeah, Sanskrit is Proto-World (or Romanian alternatively :-))...
>
> "I've spent the better part of the last two days (or so it seems)
> either explaining to students how Grassman's Law can possible explain
> exceptions to Grimm's law when it didn't even occur in Germanic or
> trying to convince them that there is some reason that they should
> learn what Grimm's Law, Verner's Law, Grassman's Law, and the Great
> English Vowel Shift are. It isn't as easy as you might think.
> Undergraduate students can be stubborn debaters, particularly when
> testable material is at stake.
>
> What I have told them, more listlessly than would be ideal, is that a
> knowledge of these sound changes is part of the shared intellectual
> tradition of historical linguistics and that they're also good
> examples of particular kinds of sound changes. They didn't seem
> convinced."
>
> And I am not convinced either. If one needs two more laws to explain
> exceptions to an earlier law then its best to get rid of all three and
> replace them with the ancient Indian tradition.