From: Richard Wordingham
Message: 47846
Date: 2007-03-14
> The reason I (Thundy) am skeptical of many proto-Indo-European rootsWe don't need any laryngeals to explain the consonants of Greek
> based on Grimm's law is that most Indo-Europeanist apply Grimm's law
> universally and claim that there is no exception to it. For the Old
> English habban, dictionaries give *kap as the root and ignore the
> Latin habere as cognate, because Grimm's Law does not allow for any
> exception! Then we have the classic cases of Sanskrit pibati, of the
> Greek pachus versus the Sanskrit bahu, and the Latin bibit versus the
> Praenstine pipafo (Collinge 259-65). By postulating laryngeals we can
> get around these problems, as scholars have done.
> even though Grimm's law is about to expireThe other Nostratic camp (e.g. Shevoroshkin) is currently
> (Collinge 267) with the radical revision of the proto-Indo-European
> obstruent system by the glottalicists Gamkrelidze, Ivanov, Hopper and
> Bromhard.
> Since every language comprises dialects, consistent voicingThis is not a particularly good example. The variation in _greasy_
> of consonants is not necessarily an infallible criterion for
> distinguishing dialects or language families—in American English, for
> instance, the voicing of /s/ in words like greasy is at best a
> variable dialectical or ideolectal feature.