From: Richard Wordingham
Message: 47785
Date: 2007-03-10
> 1. Richard, Miguel, himself, accepted that m will move in the nextNo, for om.V would be post-PIE. However, I did not claim that
> syllable ro.ma ==> He said only that o would remain short.
> I think that 'I demonstrated' that this assumption is false : *od.wos >
> < Grk. o:.dos)
>
> 2. So "it's Only you" that think that m-should remain in the first
> syllable...But before to make such assertion, you will need
> to give a PIE example of VC.V (based on the Old Greek or Sanskrit)
> More than this, based on the fact that there is "NO ROOT IN PIE TOI think that is actually a supposition. What is the evidence for it?
> START WITH A VOWEL" for sure we have "in PIE Always an ONSET in the
> first syllable",
> and I suspect that it could well be the caseI'm not sure what you are suggesting here. One might think that
> everywhere....(I didn't check anything, it's only a speculation)
> I think that we could start a debate if PIE was a "Strictly OnsetSo what is your analysis of the syllables of this word?
> Language" or not.
> 3. Even for your English example (but this is not directly linked to
> the topic, despite your efforts), N in /singer/ siN.&(r) it hasn't a
> Coda-Role, so it's not a good example, it's only 'a trick'...
> Please also to try to find an English VC.V example with m please as isHere are some pronunciations given in a book I had as a child:
> the case for m in Rome :)(or at least one with a 'true coda')
>
> Here is my help for you:
> amour /&.mur/
> amaze /&.ma:z/
> amount /&.maunt/
>
> It's clear enough? V.CV