From: tgpedersen
Message: 47646
Date: 2007-02-27
>The usual explanation is to identify Pelasgoi with Philistines and
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "tgpedersen" <tgpedersen@> wrote:
> >
> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "tgpedersen" <tgpedersen@> wrote:
> > >
> > > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Joao S. Lopes" <josimo70@...>
> > > wrote:
> > > > Akin to Armenian harc^ "concubine", Old Irish airech "idem",
> > > Avestan pairika "prostitute, witch" ?
> > > >
> > > > tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...> escreveu:
> > > > Saul Levin:
> > > > Semitic and Indo-European: The principal Etymologies
> > > > mentions an IE loan in Hebrew: 'pi(y)l´eGes^' "concubine".
> > > > Philistine (< Pelasgian) ?
> > > >
> > >
> > > I wasn't aware of those words. The question is whether they are
> > > compatible with the way Levin analysed it: preposition/preverb
> > > *pi- (cf Hittite) or *bhi, + the verbal stem *legh- "lie" (found
> > > in all IE except IndoAryan, plus in Kartvelian), in other words
> > > "lying with" (sby.). Cf. German Beischlaf "coitus". A loan IE >
> > > Semitic > IE ?
> >
> > And Latin paelex, pel(l)ex, pelica, Gr. pállax, pallaké:, (all
> > Ernout-Meillet, who suggests Etruscan intermediary role). Not that
> > the direction of loan gets any clearer.
> Add in the English expression "to sleep with somone", though that
> may be relatively recent. The existence of a word for "lover"
> or "prostitute" would make sense for PIE. There's already a word
> for "to mount", *h2org^hei, and if the word for "the one who is
> mounted" isn't based off that, it would needs be from another root -
> the such a term didn't exist, surely, is ridiculous.
>
> The explanation is quite pretty. That we may have a PIE root here is
> quite possible - but its being the same as Pelasgoi, the name of an
> entire culture, would be strange indeed unless there were a socio-
> political explanation.