From: mkelkar2003
Message: 47424
Date: 2007-02-12
>"Accepted time frame"! There in lies the crux of the problem. First
>
> --- Patrick Ryan <proto-language@...> wrote:
>
>
> >
> > Not sure I understand "no satisfactory
> > explanation".
> >
> > If we suppose that most of Europe was speaking IE
> > languages (with a few holdouts from earlier
> > immigration like Basque) originating through the
> > spread of agriculture from Anatolia, why is that not
> > "satisfactory"?
>
> ****GK: "The spread of agriculture from Anatolia"
> cannot adequately explain the Indo-Europeanization of
> many areas of Europe in the accepted time frames.
> There was an article by Novak in Antiquity few yearsMembers<http://groups.yahoo.com/group/cybalist/members;_ylc=X3oDMTJmcn
> ago which showed that the hunters/gatherers of Poland
> switched to agriculture (ca. 3800 BCE)as the basis of
> their economy without adopting the culture of their
> southern neighbours (scions of the purported
> "Anatolian waves"). Which also has linguistic
> implications.But even more important: the northernmost
> agricultural culture stemming from the Anatolian
> influence (Trypilia) had no decisive genetic or
> cultural influence on the development of its eastern
> and northern neighbours. Quite the reverse, especially
> after 3500 BCE. Which suggests that if Trypilia was
> IE, Dnipro=Donetsk and Serednyj Stih (whence the later
> "Kurgan" cultures, and eventually the Balto-Slavs and
> Indo-Iranians) were not.For more specifics, consult
> the archives of late 2001 and into 2002.****
>
>
> >
> >
> >
> > Patrick
> >
> > *****
> >
> >
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