----- Original Message -----From: george knyshSent: Sunday, February 11, 2007 11:30 PMSubject: Re: [tied] Re: From words to dates: Water into wine, mathemagic or phylogenetic inference?
--- Patrick Ryan <proto-language@ msn.com> wrote:
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> ***
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> What evidence can be brought against the idea that
> the invading hordes conquered people already
> speaking IE languages, putting aside for the moment
> what language the invaders themselves spoke?
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> Patrick
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> ***
****GK: If "the invading hordes" (here we include both
the SE and W pushes from the E by CW and Yamna-- only
the SE might properly be viewed as "destructive
onslaught") entered IE territory,and were not
themselves IE, then the question arises of how the E
became IE. This was discussed on this list back in
2001/2002. There is no satisfactory explanation. If
the "invasion" is of IE "hordes" taking over other IE,
then the question becomes how did they all become IE
prior to the "invasion". There is no satisfactory
explanation. ****
*****Not sure I understand "no satisfactory explanation".
If we suppose that most of Europe was speaking IE languages (with a few holdouts from earlier immigration like Basque) originating through the spread of agriculture from Anatolia, why is that not "satisfactory"?
Patrick
*****