From: tgpedersen
Message: 47377
Date: 2007-02-10
>Hm. I used to think the grown-ups had all the answers too, if you'll
> Am Sat, 03 Feb 2007 16:28:43 -0000 schriebst du:
>
> > The semantics of the middle has always escaped me. He did it for
> > himself vs. he did it? Why would a language find that distinction so
> > important that it needed a separate category? And why would that
> > category at times turn into a passive?
> >
>
> I'd like to know more on that exact question as well.
>
> Lehmann's book on PIE syntax
> <http://www.utexas.edu/cola/centers/lrc/books/pies00.html> has
> something on the matter; he ascribes it to PIE having been an OV
> language and the switch to SVO in the daughter languages (which he
> calls "the dialects").
>
> I just started reading the online version of this book; I did not
> find a real answer there yet, in particular why OV should imply the
> middle, but I am confident something is in one of the many chapters
> I did not read yet.