From: tgpedersen
Message: 47202
Date: 2007-02-01
> > >Out of curiosity: why do you find that excellent?
> > > > the same time we get rid of the whole Germanic sound shift
> > >
> > > Does that mean Grimm's law?
> > >
> > > M. Kelkar
> >
> > Yes. It means I'm making the claim that those changes that Grimm's
> > law is meant to explain were already present as variations
> > (allophones) in
>
> Excellent!
> That means Verner's law which is meant to explain exceptions toNot yet. I'm afraid I boasted a bit; since Verner is inseparable from
> Grimm's law is gone to.
> What do you think about the following?It's possible. The idea was proposed because Verner's recall some
>
> "Is it not possible that Verner's law of voicing is due to some
> other factor-for example the influece of another language on
> Germanic"(Thundy 1991, p. 1181, Future of Grimm's Law in the files
> section.
> > pronunciaton in PIE sounds (phonemes), and that those variationsIt's always been possible to do that, but the way I've proposed it PIE
> > were generalized in the Germanic languages and the others were
> > generalized in other IE languages, eg Sanskrit
> > > > by replacing it with generalizations of allophones that were
> > > > already present in PIE.
>
> Based on the above can PIE be split into two? PWE Proto-West
> European from which Germanic, Celtic came out and PVE (Proto Vedic)
> from which Balto-Slavic, IIr, Armenian, Greek came out.
>