Re: [tied] jer / full vowel question

On Uto, siječanj 30, 2007 1:24 am, Piotr Gasiorowski reče:

> On 2007-01-30 00:44, Mate Kapović wrote:
>
>> Why would dative get analogical -u- after the nominative? That is
>> completely ad hoc I'm afraid in spite of it being a standard
>> explanation.
>
> Perhaps because the old dative was the odd man out -- the only case-form
> in *ta- amongst several in *tuwa-, *twa- or *taw-.

What is *taw- if not *ta-? **tábhyam would be exactly like táva (and
máhyam etc.).