Re: [tied] jer / full vowel question

From: tgpedersen
Message: 47182
Date: 2007-01-30

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@...> wrote:
>
> On 2007-01-29 22:40, tgpedersen wrote:
>
> > Six of one... Why is the first vowel of *mIn- a jer, but the first
> > vowel of *tVb- a full vowel?
>
> The eR/IR (~ UR) kind of vowel variation (often with a secondary weak
> grade) is a normal phenomenon in Slavic, as in *beroN/*bIrati,
> *z^enoN/*gUnati, *pelzjoN/*pIlzati, but the reduction of inherited
> *e to /I/ is only sporadic before obstruents. My guess is that in
> frequently used pronominal forms vowel reduction took place where
> the pattern felt natural.


Aha, so it's ko mné, k tebé because it is natural that way.


Torsten