Re: On the ordering of some PIE rules

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "mkelkar2003" <swatimkelkar@...> wrote:

>
>
> > the same time we get rid of the whole Germanic sound shift
>
> Does that mean Grimm's law?
>
> M. Kelkar

Yes. It means I'm making the clain that those changes that Grimm's law
is meant to explain were already present as variations (allophones) in
pronunciaton in PIE sounds (phonemes), and that those variations were
generalized in the Germanic languages and the others were gneralized
in other IE languages, eg Sanskrit.

> > by
> > replacing it with generalizations of allophones that were already
> > present in PIE.
> >

Torsten