From: mcarrasquer
Message: 47111
Date: 2007-01-23
>Final -i has a tendency to be reduced in Russian. It's the yer-thing
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "mcarrasquer" <miguelc@> wrote:
> >
> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "tgpedersen" <tgpedersen@> wrote:
> > >
> > > cf Russian derz^í!, vs búd'!, PSl *-í vs *´-I,
> >
> > They are both PSl. -i.
>
> Why the jer in Russian then? How do you know OCS bo,di isn't
> analogical?
> móc^'). I'm not sure if there was weakening first, then accentretraction, then elimination, as in the case of the soft yer, but
> > Yers are strong or weak according to Havlík's law, which worksNo, that's exactly what I'm not saying. A stressed final yer (a.p.
> > independently of the place of the stress. Before Havlík's law,
> > all stressed yers had already lost the stress to the preceding
> > vowel. Of course, that vowel could be a yer, so there were still
> > some stressed yers left (there would have to be, in words with
> > nothing but yers).
>
> In other words, it moved to the preceding syllable, and if that
> contained a jer and was not the first syllable, it moved again,
> iteratively?