From: mcarrasquer
Message: 47076
Date: 2007-01-22
>Reading the above quote (from Torsten), the reference seems not to be
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "mandicdavid" <davidmandic@>
> wrote:
> > > > Slavic vodá might be backformed as a
> > > > singular (hence the mysterious f.) from the regular *vódy <-
> > > *wódo:ns.
> >
> > That's more likely than *wodo:r > voda.
>
> It isn't likely at all. How could a nominative in -y be
> interpreted as a genitive
>, when -y is a perfectly normalFor feminine -a from a consonant stem, cf. also nogá < *nagó:ts <
> nominative ending (of masculine n-stems and feminine uH-stems).