Re: Balto-Slavic C-stems / long vowel endings

>
> What have oxytone neuters to do with the verbal 1sg.?
> The 1sg. did not have final -m in PIE, and it can't have had -m in
> Balto-Slavic because that would have given Slavic -U, not -oN.

How do you explain -y in present participles: bery...?

> > Slavic vodá might be backformed as a
> > singular (hence the mysterious f.) from the regular *vódy <-
> *wódo:ns.

That's more likely than *wodo:r > voda. Wouldn't o: be raised to u:
then, cf. mati < má:te:r?



The neuter ending -o comes from pronominal *-od. It

> was first transferred to the adjectives (also Lith. neuter adj. -a),
> then to nouns (not only oxytones: slo``vo is a.p. c, lê"to is a.p. a).

It might also have come from -o, which appeared as an analogy to other
neuter stems -u, -i etc.

Is the barytonesis of lìto a result of Hirt's law?