Re: [tied] Odd(?) Low German verb inflection

>If one believes that this weird preterite is caused by loss of the
>preterite -d- there's no major problem. It's just that I can't see
>what phonological conditions might have caused the loss of something
>with so much semantic load?

It happens. E.g. the loss in late Latin of the distinction between future
and perfect, leading to a need to create new tenses for both. (/b/ fell
with /v/, so, e.g., amabit and amavit became indistinguishable.)

Peter