Re: [tied] Re: Greek and Sanskrit neuter plural and related questio

----- Original Message -----

From: Andrew Jarrette

To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com

Sent: Tuesday, October 31, 2006 7:20 PM

Subject: Re: [tied] Re: Greek and Sanskrit neuter plural and related questions

P&G <G.and.P@... net> wrote:

I've had some email problems, so my reply seems to have got lost. Sorry

>Those Greek o-stem neuter plurals in <-a> seem exceptional, and I would
>like to know how original >they are.

Please clarify. Do you mean the thematics (2nd declension) or the -s stem
neuters (3rd declension)?

In both cases, the -a ending is original, as far as I know, though it was
probably a long -a at first (as also in Latin).

Peter

____________ _______

I have had email problems too, hence the long delay in replying to you.

I meant the thematics.  In this declension, the expected neuter plural ending would be <thematic vowel + h2>, which if this were *e, would result in *-eh2 > *-a:.  The Latin ending seems to reflect just this, while the Germanic, Slavic, and Vedic endings could also come from *-oh2 > *-o:.  Such an *-a: would become *-e: in Attic and Ionic Greek in most words.  But instead in Greek one finds <-a> in o-stem neuter plurals.  This is extended to the neuter plural of the definite article, <ta>.  I am asking what the mechanism is by which one finds <-a> instead of *-e: in these forms in Greek.  Is it analogical, after the consonant stems, where *-h2 would regularly become <-a>?  But the neuter consonant stems are so infrequent (and may be converted to other declensions, e.g. <kardia:> "heart") that I would question this idea.  Any other ideas?