From: Richard Wordingham
> And if the Latin vowel [final -a in nominative] was always short,why does it remain
> as <-e> in French while other short unstressed vowels were lost inIn French, the formerly long unstressed vowels were also lost. It
> French (and Catalan, Provencal)?
> 2. What is the origin of the <n> that precedes the genitiveplural ending in Sanskrit (e.g. <-a:na:m)? Is it transferred from the