Re: Greek and Sanskrit neuter plural and related questions

From: Richard Wordingham
Message: 46423
Date: 2006-10-19

--- In, Andrew Jarrette <anjarrette@...> wrote:

> And if the Latin vowel [final -a in nominative] was always short,
why does it remain
> as <-e> in French while other short unstressed vowels were lost in
> French (and Catalan, Provencal)?

In French, the formerly long unstressed vowels were also lost. It
seems to be a matter of quality - only the lowest of the unstressed
vowels survived. (It's a bit more complicated than simply losing the
unstressed vowels, but that;s the simples way of summmarising what

> 2. What is the origin of the <n> that precedes the genitive
plural ending in Sanskrit (e.g. <-a:na:m)? Is it transferred from the

That's the textbook answer. And -:na:m is clearer to add to a vowel stem.