From: squilluncus
Message: 46296
Date: 2006-10-07
>wrote:
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Jens Elmegård Rasmussen <elme@>
> >wrote:
> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "tgpedersen" <tgpedersen@>
> > > bund "bottom" Danish*tn ?
> > > botten "bottom" Swedish
> > >
> > > (cf
> > >
> > > vand "water" Danish
> > > vatten "water" Swedish
> > >
> > > Two different case forms in Da. and Sw.?)
> >
> > Hey, isn't <nd> just a Danish spelling of a long /n:/ (with a
> > palatal touch) arising from any of several sources, including
> >Spanish
>
> Yes, that is the standard explanation. The old pronunciation /nY/
> (not just a touch of palatality) is secured from an 18th century
> textbook on Danish which compares Danish -ld- and -nd- with
> -ll- and -ñ-. (They later went > -ll- and -nn-, obviously, exceptin
> spelling, where the insistence of Danish orthograpy of doingwithout
> written geminates word-finally made that spelling spread intoroots
> in etymological -ll- and -nn- (vinde, falde, impv vind!, fald!).Intriguing, ponderable.
> I just don't think the standard explanation of an earlier
> *-tn- > -nY- sounds right. A hypothetical development
> *-Vtn- > *-VDn- > *-Vyn- would get stuck there with all the other
> Danish words in diphthong + -n which show no inclination to
> go > -nY- .
>
>
> Torsten
>