*dom

Hi all,

I am afraid it's going to be awful silly question, but I am going to
give it a try anyway.
According to most sources I had a look at (see below), Polish 'dom'
(meaning house) goes back to a Prot-Slavic form *domú < PIE *dom-, domo-.
I do _not_ find any reasons to doubt this.
Of course, Latin 'domus' and Gr. 'domos' come to mind and I am not
that familiar with the Slavic languages (and their history). I am
actually looking for arguments that plead against the idea that
Slavonic 'dom' is a (n early) loan from Latin (or Greek, for that
matter).
I wondered if somebody could help me out.

Thanks in advance,

Frank

Sources:
Database query to Slavic inherited lexicon [Derksen], Beekes
'Comparative Indo-European Linguistics' (at least the original Dutch
version 'Vergelijkende taalkunde', and 'List of Proto-Indo-European
roots' (http://www.answers.com/topic/list-of-proto-indo-european-roots).