From: tgpedersen
Message: 45924
Date: 2006-08-31
>Or they were regularized like this:
> On 2006-08-31 01:52, tgpedersen wrote:
>
> >> One possible
> >> explanation is that the pattern established after the working of
> >> the PIE ablaut rules was *gWHi-gWHón-h2a/*gWHé-gWHn.-me, and
> >> the variation of the reduplication vowel was levelled out.
> >>
> >
> > I think I will ask you in very clear terms and in words that are
> > not difficult to understand: can you mention one single example
> > of that pattern in all of PIEdom etc etc. ? No ? I thought not.
> > You are not able to corroborate that theory with a single shred
> > of evidence etc etc.
>
> The allomorphs of the reduplication vowel carried redundant information
> and for that reason were easily levelled out, but the pattern has left
> clear traces in Vedic. Cf.
>
> 3sg. si-s.ak-ti < *si-sékW-ti (or *si-sókW-ti, according to some)
> 3pl. sa-s'c-ati < *sé-skW-n.ti
>
> In the present, the levelling-out was usually in favour of
> *i, because this was the only outcome in thematic reduplications
> like *sí-sd-e/o-, *g^í-g^n-e/o-, *stí-sth2-e/o-, etc., but
> sometimes it was the the *e that became generalised, as in
> Ved. 3sg. da-dHa:-ti after 3pl. pl. da-dH-ati (cf. GAv. dada:iti,
> dadaiti, but. Gk. titHe:mi with i-reduplication).
>