>> [Piotr:] In the languages that have preserved the perfect as a fully
>> independent grammatical category
>> (Greek, Vedic) reduplication is obligatory, *woid- being the sole
>> exception.
>[Sean:] What about Greek ephthitai as the perfect of 'decay'?
(a) There are other examples of non-reduplicated perfects in Greek, e.g.:
erxatai = are shut in < *werg-, pluperfect erxato, and with augment
eerxato
heimai = I am clothed with < *wes-mai, 2nd p.sing hes-so, pluperfect
hesso, hestai; participle heimenos < *wes-menos
amphi-akhuia crying around (not < amphi-*wiagh, but from amphi-wakh)
dekhatai await pluperfect edegme:n, participle degmenos
(The examples are in Monro)
(b) How could we tell the difference between an inherited obligatory
reduplication and independent regularisation of reduplication in languages
that show it?
(c) Why discount the evidence of Latin, where no -o- stem perfect shows
reduplication?
Peter