[tied] Re: o-grade thoughts

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@...> wrote:

>
> On 2006-08-30 00:41, tgpedersen wrote:
>
> >> The only sure case of an
> >> unreduplicated perfect (both in the singular and in the plural) is
> >> *woid-/*wid-,
> >
> > Germanic preterito-presents. Ch.Sl. mogU.
>
> This verb reflects the root *magH-, which would have shown no ablaut
> alternations in Germanic or Slavic

Why not? And why is that relevant to reduplication? The
reduplicating Gothic class VIIa verbs have no ablaut.

> (Slavic, on the whole, shows no
> traces of the PIE perfect except the isolated case of *ve^de^ <
> *woid-h2a-i). I was talking of _sure_ examples of unreduplicated
> perfects. Germanic is demonstrably known to have given up
> reduplication in some cases, and the unreduplicated preterites of
> several classes of strong verbs correspond to reduplicated
> perfects elsewhere. Hence the justified doubts as to the
> evidential value of the absence of reduplication in that branch.
> In the languages that have preserved the perfect as a fully
> independent grammatical category (Greek, Vedic) reduplication
> is obligatory, *woid- being the sole exception.

Which in your traditional ablaut scheme, not in mine, would
have had reduplication in the ppp. From that you conclude that
it *must* have had reduplication in the ex-perf. sg. I can't
follow you.


Torsten