From: tgpedersen
Message: 45764
Date: 2006-08-17
>Somehow <ptus> doesn't sound Latin.
> On 2006-08-17 13:14, alexandru_mg3 wrote:
>
> > Please tell me also if Latin api:scor could reflect an initial *h1e-
> > or not ?
>
> Not *h1e-; that's for sure. One could ask whether Lat. ap-
> can reflect PIE *h1p-. Laryngeals seem to have been
> lost before obstruents in Latin, though the best examples
> I can think of involve laryngeals before *s, as in 3pl.
> <sunt> (*h1sénti) and <stella> (*h2ster-). Nevertheless,
> Latin often shows /a/ as a zero-grade substitute or
> "shwa secundum", an anaptyctic vowel filling a morphological
> vowel slot to break up a hard-to-syllabify consonant cluster,
> so at least in theory the development *h1p- --> *h1&p- >
> ap- is thinkable, especially in the verbal adjective
> <aptus> if from *h1p-tó-; this form may have influenced
> the rest of the paradigm.
>