Re: Identical syntactic role of nominal and verbal stem.

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "tgpedersen" <tgpedersen@...> wrote:

>
> in other words, the nominal and verbal stems receive the
> same suffix. But that implies that those two stems are
> of the same category.
> Which leads me to another puzzle: why should both nouns
> and verbs stems have athematic and thematic inflections.
> And the answer, as far I can tell, is that the bare
> verbal stem was syntactically a participle or verbal
> noun (which makes the person and number endings originally
> deitic particles and the *-i of the primary endings (*-u in
> Slavic) locative postpositions (as I've all said before).

I would rather say that the person/number affixes have the underlying
status of subject of a nominal sentence. The predicate is the
participle, and in crude terms a collocation like *gWhén-m means "I
(am) killing".

Jens