From: tgpedersen
Message: 45264
Date: 2006-07-06
>a
> On 2006-07-05 16:06, tgpedersen wrote:
>
> > The three verbs I know of with supposedly Verner variation
> > *-Vng-/*-Vnx- -> *-Vng-/*-V:x- are
> > *gang-/*ga:-
> > http://www.angelfire.com/rant/tgpedersen/Hng.html
> > *hang-/*ha:-
> > http://www.angelfire.com/rant/tgpedersen/Hng.html
> > *fang-/*fa:-
> > http://www.angelfire.com/rant/tgpedersen/HbHpHg.html
>
> Verner's law applies in the last two (PGmc. *xanx-/*xanG- and
> *fanx-/*fanG-), but not in the first pair! PGmc. *Ge:- didn't have
> final velar (never mind the misleading spelling of Mod.Ger. gehen,where
> the <h> is orthographic, not etymological!).languages but
>
> PGmc. *n before a velar fricative was lost in all Germanic
> it caused the nasalisation of the preceding vowel. The resulting*a~:
> was still nasal in Anglo-Frisian, producing long /o:/ just like thewhy
> outcome of *ans (OE go:s), *amf (OE so:ft), *anþ (OE to:þ). This is
> we have OE ho:n < *xanxan- (pp. hangen), fo:n < *fanxan- (pp.fangen),
> but ga:n (pp. ga:n, no Verner). The *x in *xanxan, *fanxan was lostin
> post-AFris. times and only when followed by a vowel (cf. 2sg.fe:hst
> 'thou catchest' but gæ:st 'thou goest').If these three glosses existed in Germanic when Verner applied, that
>