Alas, in the development of Greek I do not see many of the changes that you
claim have occurred after contact with Semitic peoples..
You mention:
> -Definite article
Greek had the definite article 1500 BC. This
is a bit earlier than the contact you seem to suggest. At least a thousand
years earlier.
> -Preprositions instead of cases or postpositions
Greek retained its cases in the katherevousa, and
still has three (or four depending how you count) in the demotike.
> -Two genders - masculine and feminine
Greek retains three genders.
> -Word order: SVO/VSO instead of old IE SOV.
Here is the only change which occurs as you say, at the time you
suggest. Unfortunately, we have a good guess what caused it - see G
Horrocks "Greek: a history of the language and its speakers" page 59-60.
Though there is still debate, and you could put your theory forward.
> -Attributs after their head
The natural place of an adjective in modern Greek
is before the noun, not after. Same in Classical.
o oraios antras = the
handsome man.
> -Loss of flexional comparative and
superlative,
Greek retains the flexional comperative, and the superlative is based on
it.
There just seems no evidence, Aquila, for what you
suggest.
Peter