From: Mate Kapović
Message: 44842
Date: 2006-06-01
> On Wed, 31 May 2006 11:32:42 +0200 (CEST), Mate KapovićAnd that you know how? Does it need to be a phoneme?
> <mkapovic@...> wrote:
>>Why do you suppose there was no *lj before the loss of the years?
>
> I don't. I said there was no palatalized phoneme /l^/
> before the loss of the yers.
>>Hardly. Romance length could have just been percepted as rising and thusAgain, you can't know that. It is impossible to tell what were the exact
>>interpreted as the old acute in Slavic. That's very common in language
>>contact. For instance, in Croatian the German accent is perceived as
>>rising, so almost all the German words get rising accents.
>
> My point is that the place of the ictus takes precedence
> over the intonation. In the feminines, the only option,
> ictus-wise, was a.p. a, so that's what they became. If
> Dybo's law was yet to come, there would have been no reason
> to treat the feminines any different from the masculines.
>>Have you read Holzer's articles?If you read his other articles, I think you would see that he did not
>
> Only the IWoBA paper.
>>Because he's not just making it up. ForThere were. But I think it's pretty clear that 2nd and 3rd palatalization,
>>instance, if you look at early Slavic loanwords in Greek, there are
>>toponyms like Karouta /karu:ta/ ~ Slavic *koryto and Gardiki ~ Slavic
>>*gordIcI. Get the picture? Slavic *did* indeed change a lot in that
>>period, that is quite clear.
>
> I know. I just have the suspicion that there were also a
> couple of changes in the millennia before AD 600.