From: Mate Kapović
Message: 44752
Date: 2006-05-29
> Actually, I came up with the question after I had read a passage inThat is correct. *V:-'V-V goes shortens regularly to V-'V-V, which is seen
> Stang's Slavonic Accentuation (p. 42), where he -- speaking of b-
> verbs ("where the present has a long vowel as a result of neo-
> acute") -- adduces some Slovincian verbs (from Lorentz's grammar) to
> illustrate a thesis that "in the syllable immediately preceding a
> stressed inner syllable we find shortening".
>Indeed, in that caseActually, the shortening is in the infinitive, but in present tense, the
> Slovincian <tr^îma,> 'I hold' (if <*tri:mň, with -ajo, dialectally
> contracted already in Common Slavic?) vs. <tr^ĺ~mac> 'to hold' (if <
> *trima"ti) would demonstrate shortening before a stressed inner
> syllable (*trima"ti) and non-shortening before a stressed final
> syllable (*tri:mň,).
> Stang didn't know Dybo's Law and considered the place of ictus in b-Nope. It is clear that there is a shortening in the first case. I have
> verbs original, while from contemporary point of view one would
> probably expect non-shortening in both cases (*trí:mati > *tri:ma"ti
> in the same way as *trí:mo, > *tri:mň,),