IE language "comes from" Semitic language?

Greetings,

I am currently in a debate by with an "anglo-Israel" promoter and he
is trying to say that IE peoples are essentially the same racial
stock as the Semitic peoples because - and I quote - "All Indo-
European languages come from Proto-Canaanite and later Phoenician, a
Semitic language."

This statement of his has sprung up to support his claim by a bit he
constantly posts from the Bible. I ran this across a Greek Bible
scholar and observe the responses:

Opponent:

Maccabees 12:21-23 -
21It is found in writing, that the Lacedomonians and Jews are
brethren, and that they are of the stock of Abraham: 22now
therefore, since this is come to our knowledge, ye shall do well to
write unto us of your prosperity. 23We do write back again to you,
that your cattle and goods are our's and our's are your's. We do
command therefore our ambassadors to make report unto you on this
wise.

.....Semitic means you are decendant of Shem, 1 Maccabees 12:21-23
clearly paints them as decendants of Abraham.

The fact is we know who the Lacedemonians were and we know they were
white.

_____________-

I rean this statement by a Greek Bible scholar and this is what he
said:

"Concerning the Lacedaemonians, there may be a valid argument that
they are (at least in part) Semitic peoples, descended from the
Minoan Civilization (which we know to be Semitic because of their
Language). But while the Semitic roots of the Lacedaemonians may be
a possibility, to extend this to all the Greeks would be absurd, for
Greek is, in its grammar and its primary vocabulary, an Indo-
European Language. If you take this verse as I suggested, referring
to the relationship between Lacedaemonia and the Minoan
Civilization, then yes, there is no reason not to take it seriously.
But if you are to interpret it as Indo-Europeans being Semitic
peoples, that is nothing short of absurd as the linguistic record
can demonstrate."

_____________

My opponent has replied to this statement with this:

"The Orthodox scholar is obviously not a linguist as he is wrong on
the origin of languages. All Indo-European languages come from Proto-
Canaanite and later Phoenician, a Semitic language."

_________

From my studies the only relationship "might" be a borrowing from
the proto-sinaitic script but nothing more.

Can anybody comment on this statement?

Thanks!