> what do you make of the verbal adjective *-i-to- (Lat. monitus, ...
How many of the original verbs that end up in the second declension in Latin
had laryngeals as a final consonant? These would have had -itum < *Htum.
( e.g. (ab-)oleo abolitum). Could these have produced an analogical
effect, so that some in this declension show -itum without etymological
justification?
Note that it is generally the roots which do not end in a laryngeal, which
do not show -itum in this declension:
e.g. cf. adoleo and aboleo adoleo < h2el, supine adultum, not *adolitum
arceo < *h2erk, supine arctum
etc
Of course many other factors, such as syncope, are at work, and the pattern
relating -itum/-tum to laryngeal final is not perfect (cf placeo). It is
much clearer in the other declensions, where almost all verbs with -itum
supine have a laryngeal final.
Peter