Re: [tied] i-verbs in Baltic and Slavic

From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 44666
Date: 2006-05-23

On Tue, 23 May 2006 22:32:23 +0200, Piotr Gasiorowski
<gpiotr@...> wrote:

>On 2006-05-23 16:14, Rick McCallister wrote:
>
>> Please tell me what the link is between Balto-Slavic, Albanian and the
>> extinct Balkan IE languages (Dacian, Thracian, Illyrian). I've seen
>> allusions to this. Is it just speculation or can it be backed up?
>
>Balto-Slavic and Albanian are both Satem languages, so _if_ the Satem
>development of the *k^ series is a homologous feature derived from a
>common ancestor, they are closer to each other phylogenetically than
>either is to, say, Celtic, Tocharian or Greek.

Are there any traces whatsoever of Winter's law in Albanian?
The other day I discovered a major error in my thinking
about the Balto-Slavic merger of /a/ and /o/, which I had
assumed to be Proto-Balto-Slavic or even pre-Balto-Slavic,
possibly Proto-Balto-Slavo-Albano-Indo-Irano-Germanic :-)

However, Winter's law gives /ad/ > /a:d/ but /od/ > /o:d/
(with some cases of /a:d/ as well), which implies that /a/
and /o/ were still distinct when the law started to work.

This can mean either that the merger of /a/ and /o/ is
younger than I thought, or, less likely, that Winter's law
is older than I thought, hence my question above.

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...