From: Mate Kapović
Message: 44650
Date: 2006-05-23
> That leaves the infinitive, where, despite the wildly(...)
> different (i~ vs. a~) development in the present forms,
> Slavic and Baltic show remarkable agreement down to the
> (acute) intonation: Slavic -i"ti, Lith. -ýti. Where can
> this acute come from? There are a few possibilities in
> Slavic, but the Lithuanian form can, or so I think, only be
> explained as *-iH- (certainly not *-ei- or *-eiH-).
> The second laryngeal does surface in the Balto-SlavicI would also like an acute explanation, but maybe an analogy is also
> infinitive, which is athematic and stressed on the ending
> *-té(:)i, leaving the causative marker in zero grade
> *-(H)ih1-. That would explain the Balto-Slavic acute.