From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 44537
Date: 2006-05-11
> That the Nostratic Hypothesis has not fared well is not due to itsAscribing a false consciousness or an ideological agenda to your
> weakness but to the ideological stances of its opponents.
> Bomhard, for example, is, in the main, on the right track even if II wonder if any mortal being is "totally objective". I try to be as
> do not agree in all specifics:
>
> http://www.geocities.com/proto-language/NostraticDictionary.htm
>
> No one who is totally objective can look at what he (and I; and
> others) have assembled without realizing that there is validity to
> the Nostratic idea. Only the details remain to be fine-tuned.
> Nostratic has been proved.You may repeat it ad nauseam, but what difference does your mantra
> This is the opposite of the now prevalent view that linguistic changeBallester does not support this expectation with any real-world evidence
> is the norm; and that time-periods of relative stability are the
> exception rather than the rule.
> This latter position is logically indefensible. It asserts effectAt least one cause of language change is _always_ there: imperfect
> without cause.