From: Benct Philip Jonsson
Message: 44444
Date: 2006-04-30
> Message: 5 Date: Sun, 30 Apr 2006 12:43:57 +0200So the net result for *OE is that Verner's Law is
> From: Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@...>
> Subject: Re: Verner's Law (Germanic)
>
> On 2006-04-30 10:11, Benct Philip Jonsson wrote:
>
> >> can anyone tell me what happens with a voiced
> >> fricative resulting from Verner's Law when it
> >> occurs after a nasal? My hunch is that
> >> [mB nD NG] were not tolerated, but became
> >> [mb nd Ng] with voiced stops. I'd appreciate
> >> if anyone could provide examples, whichever
> >> way it goes.
>
>
> Eventually, PGmc *B, *D, *G became stops after nasals, but
> it's hard to date the change, as the difference was merely
> allophonic in early Germanic. My personal theory is that the
> change is post-PGmc. (and even post-PNWGmc. in the lineage
> of English). I intend to publish the argument soon, so
> please don't quote me yet, but the general idea is that the
> final syllable in polysyllabic words was apocopated in early
> WGmc., and if a final voiced fricative was exposed in word-
> final position as a result, it became devoiced and remained
> devoiced (unless *-D > -d was restored analogically). The
> result of devoicing in the case of *D is *T, not *t, which
> indicates a fricative pronunciation at least for this
> particular point of articulation, e.g. *bHéronti > *beranDi
> (cf. Goth. bairand) > *beranD > *beranT > *bera~:T > OE
> beraT (likewise, *-z > *-s before rhotacism).
>
> Piotr