Re: [tied] -phóros, -phorós, -fer

On 2006-04-09 21:46, Rob wrote:

> Hmm, it seems odd for _dharma-bhr.t'-_ to have its second member
> accented, given the zero-grade quality of the syllable. Do you
> think that's an innovation on Vedic's part?

It's hard to say. Greek and Vedic don't quite agree in this respect. The
Vedic accentuation may be analogical to other kinds of endocentric
compounds, which are accented mostly on the second member (as in the
type of Gk. dru-tómos).

>>> Also, with the Latin forms, could it be possible that _-spex_
>>> and _-ceps_ actually come from *-spoks and *-kops?
>> I don't think so.
>
> Well, why not?

*o would have developed differently in Latin, and note that other IE
branches show root nouns with *e in this position as well.

Piotr