[tied] Re: PIE Word Formation Q&A (1)

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Mate Kapoviæ <mkapovic@...> wrote:

> > How is it *obviously* secondary? I'd like to hear your rationale,
> > please.
>
> Well, the pattern like *nebHos ~ *nebHo:s looks irregular. Thus, it
> is not at all strange that we find the secondary *nebHeseh2 etc.
> everywhere. However, archaisms also exist which point to the older
> forms.

Alright, where do you see these archaisms?

> >> Cf. -a:ni in yuga:ni. The -i is the same and the anusva:ra is the
> >> -n- from this -ni. Thus vaca:(m.)s(i).
> >
> > Where does the -n-/anusva:ra come from, though?
>
> It's just a phonetic realization of -n- in that context, i.e. -a:nsi
> > -a:m.si.

That's not what I was asking, but thanks. Perhaps what I should
really ask is how the /s/ came between the /n/ and the /i/.

- Rob