Re: [tied] Greek labiovelars

Andrew Jarrette wrote:

So are you implying that the lack of voice or the presence of
aspiration makes the articulation of /kW/ and /gWH/ clearer than
that of /gW/, and therefore more likely to retain separate velar and
labial elements, since they are more audible due to greater clarity
[]?

==> Yes, maximum voice minimizes clarity here.

Also, do you believe the idea that Celtic speakers began to
pronounce /gW/ as /b/ so as to balance the IE deficiency of /b/?

==> No, not really. Languages can live with deificiences.

But what about palatalization of labiovelars? Any idea why they
seem to be more prone to palatalization than plain velars (or
palatals, possibly, in which case it would be fronting rather than
palatalization, I suppose) in Greek and Albanian? That one still
stupefies me.

==> If you labialize the articulation of a velar, the buccal passage
is narrowed and so comes closer to the situation produced by
palatalization which also causes narrowing. Therefore,
palatalization of labiovelars is a less drastic change than
palatalization of pure velars. Less drastic changes are more likely
to happpen.

Jens