From: Mate Kapović
Message: 43870
Date: 2006-03-15
>The problem is that you put far to much into "common sense", "logic",
>
>
>
>
> From: Jens Elmegĺrd Rasmussen
> Reply-To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
> To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
> Subject: Re: [tied] Greek labiovelars
> Date: Tue, 14 Mar 2006 14:08:44 -0000
>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Joao S. Lopes" wrote:
>>
>> Does it mean that in Celtic the shift *gWH >gH>g occurred before the
> labialization of the labio-velars?
>>
>> Time 1: k g gH kW gW gWH
>> Time 2 : k g gH kW gW
>> Time 3: k g kW gW
>> Time 4: k g kW b
>
>
> No, it can only mean:
>
> 1: k g gH kW gW gWH
> 2 : k g gH kW b gWH
> 3: k g kW b gW
>
> -------------------------------
> But why is *gW so special? That's what I don't understand. Is it because
> it was a glottalic stop, as some theorize? I see no reason why *kW and
> *gWH should remain as /kW/ and /gW/ but *gW must become /b/. Why not also
> *kW > /p/ and *gWH > /b/? Or conversely *gW remain /gW/ like the other
> two? And in Greek (Attic, Ionic) *gW is special also since although like
> *kW > /t/ before /e/, *gW > /d/ before /e/, nevertheless unlike *kW > /t/
> before /i/, *gW > /b/ before /i/. I can see absolutely no phonological
> basis for this, except dialect mixing, as Sean Whalen suggested. But
> these developments in Irish, Greek, and the tentative ones in Albanian
> suggest that the labiovelars were very special in a number of
> Indo-European languages, undergoing phonological changes that seem to
> defy natural expectations (or normal phonological tendencies). It seems
> much more natural to me for *kis or *k'is to become /tis/ than it does for
> *kWis to become /tis/, yet a sequence *kis or *k'is would remain /kis/ in
> Greek, while *kWis becomes /tis/. I find this truly remarkable and would
> never believe it were it not documented fact.
> Andrew Jarrette